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 Re: هل حقا سوف يعود المسيح يوما ماء? (Re: Muhib)
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حول حادثه الصلب
القصه المصنوعه
Invention of a story:Crucifixion
Although every attempt was done to prove that Jesus(pbuh) evaded death and was raised alive, because of verse 3:54, the Muslims could not prove conclusively that Jesus(pbuh) was raised alive. So they took the refuge of verses 4:157-158 to justify the belief. In order to substantiate the belief, now they invented a rambling story that has no support from the Quran. However, let us analyze the story.
According to the story, on the eve of actual crucifixion, a different person's features became exactly like Jesus(pbuh). The Jews mistook the other person (Jehova?) as actual Jesus(pbuh) and hanged the wrong person on the cross.
We don’t want to go into the debate of how absurd it is for person's features to get changed. Let us give the benefit of doubt by saying that the other person's features did not change but to the Jews it appeared so. They mistook the other person to be actual Jesus(pbuh).
Regardless of whether this story is true or false, regardless of whether Jesus(pbuh) was hanged on cross or not, fact remains that he could not have been raised before his DEATH, as testified by verse 3:54.
If he was raised alive, then the verses 4:157-158 and 3:54 are in contradiction. The Muslim scholars will never want you find out that their preaching are contradictory and that they cannot conclusively reconcile these and several other verses.
Let me show you an extreme case of corruption. This translation is of verse 4:157, done by Hilali & Khan and published by the Saudi Government. They have placed Arabic text by the side of the English translation.
Any naïve reader would think that the translation is representing the actual Arabic wordings. A naïve reader may further think that the combination of Hilali &Khan and Saudi Government must have produced correct teaching. On the contrary, it is incorrect and corrupt. You will be surprised to see the extent of manipulation. Let us examine:
4:157 Hilali & Khan :"And because of their saying (in boast) "We killed Messiah Isa (Jesus) son of Maryam (Mary), the Messenger of Allah," -but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but the resemblance of Isa (Jesus) was put over another man (and they killed that man)….
Please note carefully, Hilali & Khan translated the Arabic WA lakin subbiha lahum as "but the resemblance of Isa (Jesus) was put over another man".
In the actual Arabic where are the words "of Isa" and "another man"? How dare Hilali & Khan put interpolated words inside the translation and surreptitiously suggest that these were "revealed text"?
Did Allah reveal these words secretly to them, because apparently He forgot to reveal to Muhammad(pbuh) (nauzubillah!!!!).
Or do they mean that they know better than Allah? Please note, Yusuf Ali, Pickthall, Shakir, Rodwell, and many others did not go this extreme.
Only adamant and utterly corrupt people, including Hilali & Khan may keep arguing that the translation is OK. Do I have to dig out the their eyes to show that "of Isa" and "another man" is not in there in the actual Arabic. They say this theory is based on some Hadith or Islamic consensus or something! Well, then put those interpolated and false words inside parenthesis, will you?
Put all the babble and fraudulent stories as commentary in the footnote and not as translation. Don’t fool the Muslims with this notion that all the junk and fabricated words are "revealed text". Suffice it say at this time that Hilali & Khan's this translation is corrupt, false and adulterated. This is just one example of how they are cheating Muslims, and naïve Muslims are digesting the falsehood.
If we leave aside the stories and concentrate on understanding the verse we will see a different perspective. In the verse 4:157 please notice carefully, WA lakin subbiha lahum means "He was made to resemble to them" or "it was made to resemble to them" or "a likeness of that was made for them" or "a similitude was made for them" -- not "someone was made to resemble him". In the sentences, "it" or "that" refers to the incident and not a person. So Jehova resembling Jesus(pbuh) can not arise.
It was Jesus(pbuh) who was made to "resemble" to them. Resemble to the very issue in question here: likeness or similitude of death. The issue is not Jesus(pbuh) resembling a different person or a different person resembling Jesus(pbuh). Jesus(pbuh) was set up on the cross and he was made (by Allah) to resemble to them (as if he really died) by sending him to a comatose or fainted state.
The Jews took a fainted or comatose Jesus(pbuh) as dead. "Verily those who differ regarding him are certainly in a doubt about him." The word "differ" here refers to the those people who, at that time and later on refuse the clarification given by Allah that "….
They could not murder him nor could they crucify him….". It is also possible that they would differ with their original contention that "Surely we have killed the Masih - 'Isa son of Maryam".
Question remains, why should there be confusion if they really, positively and absolutely killed Jesus(pbuh) by crucifixion? Remains of his body should have been somewhere in Jerusalem to prove their contention.
However, based on the clarification given by Allah, based on the fact that he lived till he had gray hairs (3:45, 5:40 - discussed next), based on various happenings after the incidence of crucifixion and in absence of any proof of his tomb in Jerusalem, they were in doubt whether these people really killed Jesus(pbuh) or not.
This confusion among "those" people came up because after the incidence of crucifixion, they may have heard about Jesus(pbuh) talking, walking and mixing with his disciples (openly or secretly).
If they really killed Jehova taking him to be Jesus(pbuh), then his mortal remains or tomb should have been somewhere in Jerusalem. This tomb should have come to be recognized as the tomb of Jesus(pbuh).
In reality there is no tomb in Jerusalem that was ever identified or can be identified (correctly or otherwise) as the tomb of Jesus(pbuh).
In Summary: The confusion arises because Allah said "…they did not crucify him.." What is important to understand is the word means ‘to kill by crucifixion’.
The reason Jews put a person on the cross is to kill him according to their custom. They would not put a person on the cross and later let him go away. So, the word "crucify" has an inherent meaning of killing by crucifixion. Killing by crucifixion was their intent, and with this intent they did put him on the cross, however, they failed to kill him.
Please read an interesting site about substitution theory: Was Jesus Substituted on the Cross?
Many Muslims say verse 4:159 indicates Jesus(pbuh) will come back. If you think so, please read an interpretation of the verse 4:159: Interpretation of Verse 4:159.
يتبع
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Muhib
فيس بوك
تويتر
انستقرام
يوتيوب
بنتيريست